[Jul-2022] EC-COUNCIL 312-38 Actual Questions and Braindumps [Q46-Q70]

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[Jul-2022] EC-COUNCIL 312-38 Actual Questions and Braindumps

Pass 312-38 Exam with Updated 312-38 Exam Dumps PDF 2022

Preparation Process

Understanding the exam topics is very critical to success in the test. Therefore, the potential candidates must download the exam blueprint to review the comprehensive details of these domains. After exploring the scope of the test, they can proceed to choose ample resources to prepare for EC-Council 312-38 with great deliberation.

Exam Overview

The interested candidates must complete the 312-38 exam with a high result if they want to earn the Certified Network Defender certificate. Therefore, they should know what to expect. The test is 4 hours long and contains 100 questions. You must achieve the passing score, which ranges from 60% to 85%, to qualify for the certification.

Q46. Which of the following statements are true about security risks? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. (Choose three.)

They are considered an indicator of threats coupled with vulnerability.

They can be removed completely by taking proper actions.

They can be analyzed and measured by the risk analysis process.

They can be mitigated by reviewing and taking responsible actions based on possible risks.

Q47. Which of the following network devices operate at the network layer of the OSI model? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

Router

Bridge

Repeater

Gateway

Q48. Which of the following is a physical security device designed to entrap a person on purpose?

Mantrap

Trap

War Flying

War Chalking

Q49. CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. ______________is a free open-source utility for network exploration and security auditing that is used to discover computers and services on a computer network, thus creating a “map” of the network.

Q50. Which of the following steps will NOT make a server fault tolerant? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose two.)

Adding a second power supply unit

Performing regular backup of the server

Adding one more same sized disk as mirror on the server

Implementing cluster servers’ facility

Encrypting confidential data stored on the server

Q51. Which of the following standards is an amendment to the original IEEE 802.11 and specifies security mechanisms for wireless networks?

802.11b

802.11e

802.11i

802.11a

802.11i is an amendment to the original IEEE 802.11. This standard specifies security mechanisms for wireless networks. It replaced the short Authentication and privacy clause of the original standard with a detailed Security clause. In the process, it deprecated the broken WEP. 802.11i supersedes the previous security specification, Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP), which was shown to have severe security weaknesses.
Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) had previously been introduced by the Wi-Fi Alliance as an intermediate solution to WEP insecurities. The Wi-Fi Alliance refers to their approved, interoperable implementation of the full 802.11i as WPA2, also called RSN (Robust Security Network). 802.11i makes use of the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) block cipher, whereas WEP and WPA use the RC4 stream cipher.
Answer option D is incorrect. 802.11a is an amendment to the IEEE 802.11 specification that added a higher data rate of up to 54 Mbit/s using the 5 GHz band. It has seen widespread worldwide implementation, particularly within the corporate workspace. Using the 5 GHz band gives 802.11a a significant advantage, since the 2.4 GHz band is heavily used to the point of being crowded. Degradation caused by such conflicts can cause frequent dropped connections and degradation of service.
Answer option A is incorrect. 802.11b is an amendment to the IEEE 802.11 specification that extended throughput up to 11 Mbit/s using the same 2.4 GHz band. This specification under the marketing name of Wi-Fi has been implemented all over the world. 802.11b is used in a point-to-multipoint configuration, wherein an access point communicates via an omni-directional antenna with one or more nomadic or mobile clients that are located in a coverage area around the access point.
Answer option B is incorrect. The 802.11e standard is a proposed enhancement to the 802.11a and 802.11b wireless LAN (WLAN) specifications. It offers quality of service (QoS) features, including the prioritization of data, voice, and video transmissions. 802.11e enhances the 802.11 Media Access Control layer (MAC layer) with a coordinated time division multiple access (TDMA) construct, and adds error-correcting mechanisms for delay-sensitive applications such as voice and video.

Q52. Which of the following tools is described below? It is a set of tools that are used for sniffing passwords, e-mail,
and HTTP traffic. Some of its tools include arpredirect, macof, tcpkill, tcpnice, filesnarf, and mailsnarf. It is
highly effective for sniffing both switched and shared networks. It uses the arpredirect and macof tools for
switching across switched networks. It can also be used to capture authentication information for FTP, telnet,
SMTP, HTTP, POP, NNTP, IMAP, etc.

Dsniff

Cain

Libnids

LIDS

Q53. Which of the following is an electronic device that helps in forwarding data packets along networks?

Router

Hub

Repeater

Gateway

Q54. Brendan wants to implement a hardware based RAID system in his network. He is thinking of choosing a suitable RAM type for the architectural setup in the system. The type he is interested in provides access times of up to 20 ns. Which type of RAM will he select for his RAID system?

NVRAM

SDRAM

NAND flash memory

SRAM

Q55. Which BC/DR activity includes action taken toward resuming all services that are dependent on business-critical applications?

Response

Recovery

Resumption

Restoration

Q56. Which characteristic of an antenna refers to how directional an antennas radiation pattern is?

Radiation pattern

Polarization

Directivity

Typical gain

Q57. Which of the following is an exterior gateway protocol that communicates using a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and sends the updated router table information?

IGMP

IRDP

OSPF

BGP

Q58. Which of the following IEEE standards is an example of a DQDB access method?

802.3

802.5

802.6

802.4

Q59. Which of the following OSI layers establishes, manages, and terminates the connections between the local and remote applications?

Data Link layer

Network layer

Application layer

Session layer

The session layer of the OSI/RM controls the dialogues (connections) between computers. It establishes, manages and terminates the connections between the local and remote application. It provides for full-duplex, half-duplex, or simplex operation, and establishes checkpointing, adjournment, termination, and restart procedures. The OSI model made this layer responsible for graceful close of sessions, which is a property of the Transmission Control Protocol, and also for session checkpointing and recovery, which is not usually used in the Internet Protocol Suite. The Session Layer is commonly implemented explicitly in application environments that use remote procedure calls. Answer option C is incorrect. The Application Layer of TCP/IP model refers to the higher-level protocols used by most applications for network communication. Examples of application layer protocols include the File Transfer Protocol (FTP) and the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). Data coded according to application layer protocols are then encapsulated into one or more transport layer protocols, which in turn use lower layer protocols to affect actual data transfer. Answer option A is incorrect. The Data Link Layer is Layer 2 of the seven-layer OSI model of computer networking. It corresponds to or is part of the link layer of the TCP/IP reference model. The Data Link Layer is the protocol layer which transfers data between adjacent network nodes in a wide area network or between nodes on the same local area network segment. The Data Link Layer provides the functional and procedural means to transfer data between network entities and might provide the means to detect and possibly correct errors that may occur in the Physical Layer. Examples of data link protocols are Ethernet for local area networks (multi-node), the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP), HDLC, and ADCCP for point-to-point (dual-node) connections. Answer option B is incorrect. The network layer controls the operation of subnet, deciding which physical path the data should take, based on network conditions, priority of service, and other factors. Routers work on the Network layer of the OSI stack.

Q60. Which of the following is the best known Windows tool for finding open wireless access points?

Netcat

Dsniff

Snort

Netstumbler

Q61. Which of the following ranges of addresses can be used in the first octet of a Class B network address?

224-255

128-191

0-127

192-223

Q62. In which of the following conditions does the system enter ROM monitor mode? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

The router does not have a configuration file.

There is a need to set operating parameters.

The user interrupts the boot sequence.

The router does not find a valid operating system image.

Q63. Which of the following tools is used to ping a given range of IP addresses and resolve the host name of the remote system?

SuperScan

Netscan

Hping

Nmap

Q64. You are monitoring your network traffic with the Wireshark utility and noticed that your network is experiencing a large amount of traffic from a certain region. You suspect a DoS incident on the network. What will be your first reaction as a first responder?

Avoid Fear, Uncertainty and Doubt

Communicate the incident

Make an initial assessment

Disable Virus Protection

Q65. Malone is finishing up his incident handling plan for IT before giving it to his boss for review. He is outlining the incident response methodology and the steps that are involved. What is the last step he should list?

Assign eradication.

Recovery

Containment

A follow-up.

Q66. Which of the following VPN topologies establishes a persistent connection between an organization’s main office and its branch offices using a third-party network or the Internet?

Star

Point-to-Point

Full Mesh

Hub-and-Spoke

Q67. Which of the following tools is used for wireless LANs detection?

Airopeek

NetStumbler

Fort Knox

Sniffer

Q68. Which of the following is a session layer protocol?

RPC

SLP

RDP

ICMP

Q69. Which of the following is a device that provides local communication between the datalogger and a computer?

Controllerless modem

Optical modem

Acoustic modem

Short haul modem

Q70. Which of the following UTP cables supports transmission up to 20MHz?

Category 2

Category 5e

Category 4

Category 1

Recommended Training

So, let’s focus on the recommended online course for the CND 312-38 validation:

Certified Network Defender (CND)
The EC-Council offers one course with a corresponding name to help candidates study for the official 312-38 exam. This is the Certified Network Defender or CND training, which is an intensive, hands-on program that focuses on network security and other similar concepts. As a labor-intensive training that aligns with the latest skills, this class has been reorganized to reflect the current job roles and responsibilities of network administrators. It is intended to prepare candidates for advanced roles in this field by confirming their expertise in risk mitigation. With almost half of the course built around hands-on lab lessons, this program will be a vital tool to help you understand the learning objectives including endpoint protection, application & data protection, network perimeter protection, network defense management, and threat prediction among other skills. It’s worth mentioning that this training also includes three demo videos to help candidates gain a good grasp of the test details. These sections include the CND with Eric Reed, CND Meet Your Instructor, and iLabs Demo. Get the complete package today for $1,899 and validate your skills in the best way, and if you are still wondering what the full package contains, find the whole list below:
- Official e-courseware (12-month access);
- Instructor-led training modules (12-month access);
- iLabs (6-month access);
- Certificate of completion;
- Exam voucher.

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